A Thing That Makes Me Go ..Hmm?

Often times as believers we run across something that we haven’t been taught or seen/revealed before within the scriptures; or about the FAITH we are in or had been raised in .  Once those things are revealed we sometimes wrestle with them because it goes against the grain or the norm.  We eventually become fearful of sharing those newly never before heard of or seen things to others because of labeling, backlashing or ostracizing.  I remember even when I was within the circe (church system) I would have thoughts and questions that would come to my mind that I knew if I had spoken those things that I would have been spiritually stoned.  

Well, again today I had one of those hmm? moments when a question popped up in my mind.

Here’s my ..Hmm?  Why is it that the B'rit Chadashah (new testament writings) are primarily compiled with Paul’s (Shaul) letters? 

And of course I begin to ponder; which, lead me to another question. “Why not include more of the other Emissaries (Shaliach- Apostles) work?  After all, our Messiah had more than just Paul (who is not of the original 12).  Even Peter as a member of the original Apostles has-very little letters attributed to him in comparison to Paul.

History shows us that during the 1^st and 2^nd centuries, assemblies were using the Torah with a variety of complimentary writings in their teachings and worship of Yah, while honoring the Messiah Yahushua (Yeshua, Yahusha…there was no J used in the common languages at this time). 

Example:  in assembly A, they used the Torah, other writings and the book of Enoch.  In assembly B, they used the Torah, other writings and the book of Yasher (Jasher).  But all assemblies had the Torah as their base!

So why did Bishop Athanasius (around A.D. 367) publish the 27 books that were later canonized in A.D. 393 at the Synod of Hippo Regius; and then finalized in A.D. 397 at Carthage, in North Africa?  It is stated that Bishop Athanasius wrote "In these [27 writings] alone the teaching of godliness is proclaimed”.  So here’s another of my ..Hmm?  But why these particular 27, in which 2/3 is attributed to Paul? After all, there are other emissaries/apostles writings.

Plausible?  Because Matthew, Mark, Luke and John (which all mirror each other) and the 2/3 writings that are attributed to Paul; when taken alone, can cause one to believe that the Torah has been replaced (even though the Messiah and the 1^st Century believers, including Paul, were Torah Observers themselves).  Selah’ that for a moment……….. (the Messiah and the 1^st Century believers, including Paul, were Torah Observers themselves)…Selah’.  My conviction is that there was a systemic destruction of the reality of Torah; to purposely omit it, so that the dominate Roman Empire religions and the writings that agreed with the empire, could replace Torah.   

Again, if you take the writings of Matthew – Revelation alone (apart from Torah as the foundation) you will actually come to the false Roman Empire religious terms Church, Sunday worship, Christianity, Jesus and other Latin, Germanic, Celtic and Old English terms; and other beliefs that are non-scriptural. However, if you read what Peter said you will see that scripture or writings apart from the knowledge of Torah becomes distorted – referencing Paul - 2 Peter 3:16 CJB “Indeed, he speaks about these things in all his letters. They contain some things that are hard to understand, things which the uninstructed and unstable distort, to their own destruction, as they do the other Scriptures”.  Uninstructed in what? Torah

The Pauline letters are taught in the circe system (church system), more than any of the other apostles letters.  And this has led many true-hearted individuals to believe and practice the various Roman Empire religions unknowingly.  And many feel they are doing the service of Yah (and we pray for them that Yah would open their eyes and have mercy on them as he did us).

But I close with two (2)  final ..Hmm’s? 

• Since the new testament writings were canonized by bias non-Torah observers, why do you think that they got it right? 

• Here’s Messiah speaking of Moses (Moshe) writings, the Torah, in John 5:46-47 KJV “For had ye believed Moses, ye would have believed me; for he wrote of me. But if ye believe not his writings, how shall ye believe my words”?   

Here’s another version of John 5:46-47AMP… For if you believed and relied on Moses, you would believe and rely on Me, for he wrote about Me [personally]. But if you do not believe and trust his writings, how then will you believe and trust My teachings? [How shall you cleave to and rely on My words?]

 

“The Messiah is not anti-Torah" 
"The Torah is not anti-Messiah”

 

Selah’